Last week I wrote a post that attempted to dehomogenize Scott Sumner from Krugman. I left a similar but more precise comment on Bob Murphy's blog. Sumner seemed to endorse it. But there's something that doesn't make sense.
Baca Juga
Here's the logic for why open-market operations need an inefficient market to work.* Say reserves are currently plentiful and yield 0%. Twenty-year 2% bonds are trading in the market at their fundamental value of $115 and an implied interest rate of about 1%. If the Fed announces it's going to buy a bunch of 20-year bonds, how can it increase their price above fundamental value? Any attempt to bid bond prices above $115 will cause rational traders to quickly sell every bond they own to the Fed so as to take advantage of the overvaluation. Bond prices don't change, nor does the 1% yield. Same goes for stocks and other assets. QE-style open market operations can't get a "bite" on asset prices.
But as market monetarists like to point out, even in today's environment of plentiful reserves, open market operations do seem to have an effect on asset prices. See Lars Christensen's chart, for instance. So if purchases have demonstratively pushed up asset prices, that means traders aren't selling those assets at their fundamental value, and therefore markets aren't efficient.
Having redefined efficient, when the Fed announces it will buy 20-year bonds, their fundamental value still doesn't change. Instead, the liquidity premium on 20-year bonds rises. After all, with the Fed wading into the pool, these bonds have become much more liquid. As a result, the efficient price of 20-year bonds will rise. In this way, prices can rationally diverge from their fundamental value without the assumption of efficiency being dropped. That's why open market operations can have bite, even in an environment like ours.
*I get this from Eggertson and Woodford, who get it from Neil Wallace, who got it from the efficient market crowd, Miller, Modigliani, and the rest.
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